Good people,
I am trying to execute an SQL query against an MS Access database through my Java program. The program uses the JdbcOdbc driver. The query contains the inbuilt Replace function in it. It looks something like this:
SELECT Replace(first_name, '-', ' ') AS f_name FROM patient WHERE....
The program fails with the following error: "[Microsoft][ODBC Microsoft Access Driver] Undefined function 'Replace' in expression."
How can this be? Other functions such as LCase and Trim work just fine. Also, the Replace function works okay when executed directly on the back end.
Your query can not use the Replace() function unless it is run from within an Access session.
The situation is the same as if you were attempting to use a user-defined function. The db engine can only utilize those with assistance from the Access expression service, which is only available from within an Access session.
Related
UPDATE 11.15.2022
I have conducted extensive testing and found the pattern of problem here. Once again, what's strange is this ONLY happens if you pass a function as a parameter to the originating Stored Procedure; passing a hardcoded value or variable works just fine.
The issue is when the Stored Procedure calls another Stored Procedure that checks ##read_only to see if it can WRITE to the database. I confirmed removing any code that writes data fixes the issue -- so ultimately it appears passing a STATIC value to the SP causes the procedure execution to bypass any writing (as expected) because of the IF ##read_only = FALSE THEN ...write...
It seems passing a function somehow causes MySQL to compile a "tree" of calls and subcalls to see if they CAN write rather than if they DO write.
It appears the only way to work around this is to pass the parameters as variables rather than function calls. We can do this, but it will require substantial refactoring.
I just wonder why MySQL is doing this - why passing a function is causing the system to look ahead and see IF it COULD write rather than if it does.
We have a Read Replica that's up and running just fine. We can execute reads against it without a problem.
We can do this:
CALL get_table_data(1, 1, "SELECT * from PERSON where ID=1;", #out_result, #out_result_value);
And it executes fine. Note it's READS SQL DATA tagged. It does not write anything out.
We can also do this:
SELECT get_value("OBJECT_BASE", "NAME");
Which is SELECT function that is READ ONLY.
However, if we try to execute this:
CALL get_table_data(1, get_value("OBJECT_BASE", "NAME"), "SELECT * from PERSON where ID=1;", #out_result, #out_result_value);
We get the error:
Error: ER_OPTION_PREVENTS_STATEMENT: The MySQL server is running with the --read-only option so it cannot execute this statement
We're baffled at what could cause this. Both the SP and function are read-only and execute individually just fine, but the second we embed the function result in the call of the SP, the system chokes.
Any ideas?
So AWS cannot figure this out. The issue only happens when a function is passed as a parameter to a stored procedure that calls another stored procedure (not even passing the value of the function) that has a ##read_only check before doing an INSERT or UPDATE. So for some reason, the system is doing a pre-scan check when a function is passed vs. a variable or hardcoded value.
The workaround is to pass the function value as a variable.
I'm going to report this issue to Oracle as it might be some sort of bug, especially given the function is DETERMINISTIC.
I am trying to write a query in MS Access, and receiving the error "Undefined function 'mid' in expression' when I try to execute it.
SELECT MID([ColumnName], 4,2)
FROM tblName
As I understand it, the MID function is the MS Access equivalent to Substring. Both the table and the column definitely exist. What could be causing this error?
Check 'References' in 'Tools' menu in VBA, there must be some 'MISSING' libraries.
I have a passthrough query in an Access 2010 application, which I'm using to call a stored procedure on a SQL Server backend. The stored procedure takes a parameter that I need to make dynamic. The problem is this:
Execute spMyProc 'userName' works as expected.
Execute spMyProc getUserName() generates a "syntax error at ')'" message.
Is it possible to use a function as a parameter in a pass-through query?
Also, I should note that I'm migrating a complex Access application to SQL server, and I'm really not well-versed in what I'm doing. Any suggestions on things I'm doing incorrectly will be gratefully received. This particular question is rising from an attempt to change the Record Source of a Form from a simple select statement in the Record Source property to something that can be run on the server.
You can use this code:
With CurrentDb.QueryDefs("MyPass")
.SQL = "exec spMyProc '" & getUserName() & "'"
.Execute
End With
Because getUserName() is a local VBA function, then you need to pre-evaluate the actual string sent to SQL server. As above shows using a saved pass-though is "handy" since you don't have to deal with connection strings etc.
Strange situation with my ODBC code ( called from a C library ). Basically, I have the following sequence of events:
Create insert statement ( just a string )
Call SQLPrepare with that insert statement string
Bind the various parameters ( column values ), using
SQLBindParameter
Call SQLExecute to insert the row ( this works, by the way, as I can
see the row in the MySQL DB )
Create "select last_insert_id()" statement string
NOTE: if in SQL Server mode, we would create a "select ##identity"
statement
Bind column using SQLBindCol - this is where I get the "Invalid
descriptor index" error
NOTE: if in SQL Server mode, this works fine, with no error
Call SQLExecDirect to get the last insert id - this never happens
because of SQLBindCol error
Does the standard MySQL ODBC connector require something special in this situation? Does anyone have an ODBC example of this type of "insert" then "get last insert id" behavior? Maybe I need to call "SQLPrepare" before step 6 ( where I bind the column )? Another way to ask this: Should there be an SQLPrepare call for each SQLExecute or SQLExecDirect call?
I know it works directly in SQL, so the problem is my C ODBC code.
Thanks.
For those who are interested, I ended up changing the above steps by adding an SQLPrepare call between creating the "select last_insert_id()" ( step 5 ) and calling SQLBindCol ( step 6 ). Not sure if that would work for others, but it seems to be working rather well for me.
As for research, I looked all over the place online and never found a really good or clear answer. Most comments were about the SQL involved, not ODBC. And the references to ODBC were vague and did not seem to apply to my situation, from what I could see.
My assumption is that the SqlServer ODBC driver I am using handles the missing prepare statement differently ( maybe even better, but that is debatable ) than my MySql ODBC driver.
SQL Server ODBC driver was the one provided by Easysoft
MySql ODBC driver was the one provided with the standard CentOS install of MySql
Hopefully this will help people. Obviously, if people have a better idea, please tell us.
With respect to below macro. Which VB Reference setting I have to do for run this macro.
As I got error "Run-time error '-2147217900 (80040e14)':
Syntax error in From clause.
Updating MS - Access fields through MS-Excel cells
kindly guide.......
To use ADO stuff you have to add the below to your references:
Microsoft ActiveX Data Objects x.x Object Library
As for the syntax error, perhaps pasting some code and telling us which line the debugger says is erroring out on would help. My initial guess is some sort of select statement that is selecting something that doesn't exist -- but without code/intent/example data it would be hard to pinpoint.