I have a situation in which I don't want inserts to take place (the transaction should rollback) if a certain condition is met. I could write this logic in the application code, but say for some reason, it has to be written in MySQL itself (say clients written in different languages will be inserting into this MySQL InnoDB table) [that's a separate discussion].
Table definition:
CREATE TABLE table1(x int NOT NULL);
The trigger looks something like this:
CREATE TRIGGER t1 BEFORE INSERT ON table1
FOR EACH ROW
IF (condition) THEN
NEW.x = NULL;
END IF;
END;
I am guessing it could also be written as(untested):
CREATE TRIGGER t1 BEFORE INSERT ON table1
FOR EACH ROW
IF (condition) THEN
ROLLBACK;
END IF;
END;
But, this doesn't work:
CREATE TRIGGER t1 BEFORE INSERT ON table1 ROLLBACK;
You are guaranteed that:
Your DB will always be MySQL
Table type will always be InnoDB
That NOT NULL column will always stay the way it is
Question: Do you see anything objectionable in the 1st method?
From the trigger documentation:
The trigger cannot use statements that explicitly or implicitly begin or end a transaction such as START TRANSACTION, COMMIT, or ROLLBACK.
Your second option couldn't be created. However:
Failure of a trigger causes the statement to fail, so trigger failure also causes rollback.
So Eric's suggestion to use a query that is guaranteed to result in an error is the next option. However, MySQL doesn't have the ability to raise custom errors -- you'll have false positives to deal with. Encapsulating inside a stored procedure won't be any better, due to the lack of custom error handling...
If we knew more detail about what your condition is, it's possible it could be dealt with via a constraint.
Update
I've confirmed that though MySQL has CHECK constraint syntax, it's not enforced by any engine. If you lock down access to a table, you could handle limitation logic in a stored procedure. The following trigger won't work, because it is referencing the table being inserted to:
CREATE TRIGGER t1 BEFORE INSERT ON table1
FOR EACH ROW
DECLARE num INT;
SET num = (SELECT COUNT(t.col)
FROM your_table t
WHERE t.col = NEW.col);
IF (num > 100) THEN
SET NEW.col = 1/0;
END IF;
END;
..results in MySQL error 1235.
Have you tried raising an error to force a rollback? For example:
CREATE TRIGGER t1 BEFORE INSERT ON table1
FOR EACH ROW
IF (condition) THEN
SELECT 1/0 FROM table1 LIMIT 1
END IF;
END;
Related
Let me put it in simplest words possible - is it possible to delete the row, which actually set On the trigger i.e. I have an AFTER INSERT ON <table2> trigger, the SQL in the trigger INSERT / UPDATE another <table1> (based on a WHERE), and finally tends to delete the entry/row in the (the row which basically fired the trigger).
Trigger SQL:
DELIMITER ||
DROP TRIGGER IF EXISTS trg_adddata_tmp ||
CREATE TRIGGER trg_adddata_tmp
AFTER INSERT ON adddata_tmp
FOR EACH ROW
BEGIN
IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM adddata WHERE data_id = new.data_id AND account_name = new.account_name) THEN
UPDATE adddata SET data_id = new.data_id, account_name = new.account_name, user_name = new.user_name, first_name = new.first_name, last_name = new.last_name WHERE data_id = new.data_id AND account_name = new.account_name;
ELSE
INSERT INTO adddata (data_id, account_name, user_name, first_name, last_name)
VALUES(new.data_id, new.account_name, new.user_name, new.first_name, new.last_name);
END IF;
DELETE FROM adddata_tmp WHERE id = new.id;
END;
||
Without the DELETE (just above the END;) the trigger works fine - UPDATE if exist otherwise INSERT - with DELETE statement gives the following error:
Error Code: 1442
Can't update table 'adddata_tmp' in stored function/trigger because it is already used by statement which invoked this stored function/trigger.
By the way, the error is pretty self-explanatory, but still wanted to make sure if this is possible - if not this way, may be some other way around i.e. I want the adddata_tmp table to be empty (or clean-ed up) all the time (on INSERT copies the data to main adddata table)
One idea, I have in mind is, to use an EVENT to clean-up the adddata_tmp based on some status field - which gets set as the last statement in the trigger (in place of DELETE).
No, you can't do this with trigger, here's what the documentation says:
A stored function or trigger cannot modify a table that is already
being used (for reading or writing) by the statement that invoked the
function or trigger.
If adddata_tmp table needs to be empty all the time then I would not write trigger at all. Instead, I would recommend moving adddata update logic in the script/service that tries to insert the data into adddata_tmp.
update
If we are doing bulk inserts and the data (in adddata_tmp table) is not utilised anywhere else then we can write a cron job to clean up the table (i.e. the one that executes let's say every 10 minutes). Also, TRUNCATE would be more efficient (than DELETE) in this case.
There is a declared MySQL function GETUSERID() returning an integer value. How to make a record insert faster: setting the value from inside a query like
INSERT INTO ttable
(idtoset, some_other_field...)
VALUES (GETUSERID(), value1...);
or call
INSERT INTO ttable
(some_other_field...)
VALUES (value1...);
and fill idtoset by a trigger that fires before insert?
What if the query is performing multiple row insert like
INSERT INTO ttable
(idtoset, some_other_field...)
VALUES (GETUSERID(), value1...),
(GETUSERID(), value2...),
...
(GETUSERID(), valueN...);
?
Edit
I have just investigated the answer of #Rahul.
I created a ttest table with two triggers
CREATE TRIGGER `tgbi` BEFORE INSERT ON `ttest` FOR EACH ROW BEGIN
SET NEW.testint=1;
END;
CREATE TRIGGER `tgbi` BEFORE UPDATE ON `ttest` FOR EACH ROW BEGIN
SET NEW.testint=2;
END;
If I am not mistaken, should the before insert trigger call UPDATE SET the second trigger is expected to fire as well and the created testint value might be =2, but it is =1 in every inserted row. Could that mean that the engine optimises INSERT procedure and sets the value simultaneously with that set manually by query?
Appended on request of #Rick-James. The question is not about the definite function. It is actually about any function. Any function will be called same number of times if the record is inserted from trigger or from INSERT query. That is why I am wondering what is better from the point of MySQL engine - to call it manually setting the value in inserted records or filling it by means of triggers?
CREATE DEFINER=`***`#`***` FUNCTION `GETUSERID`() RETURNS int(10)
BEGIN
DECLARE id_no INT DEFAULT -1;
SELECT `id` INTO id_no FROM `tstuff`
WHERE `tstuff`.`user_name`=
(SELECT SUBSTRING_INDEX(USER(), '#', 1)) LIMIT 1;
RETURN id_no;
END
What is faster? No idea since I haven't done a bench marking on that but doing an direct INSERT operation would better to my knowledge instead of inserting and then perform an UPDATE through trigger.
Does what you are doing currently not working? you can as well make it a INSERT .. SELECT operation like
INSERT INTO ttable (idtoset, some_other_field...)
SELECT GETUSERID(), value1..., valuen FROM DUAL;
In past versions of MySQL, using a before insert trigger to populate a not nullable column didn't work as MySQL was evaluating the provided columns before the trigger. That's why whenever I have such a situation, I usually tend to go with functions instead of triggers.
From a performance point of view, since the before insert trigger is evaluated before actually writing data so the time needed to perform this is almost the same as immediately getting the value with the function and without trigger. But if all you are doing in the trigger is set the user ID, then I really see no reason to use a trigger.
I have been trying to create a Trigger, however my attempts have been unsuccessful. I seem to be getting an error (#1064), which I have no solution for. Can somebody explain or demonstrate any faults in the syntax.
Let me specify:
I have delivery_id as primary key in delivery table,
I also have delivery_id as a foreign key in entry_log table.
By comparing both id's(if true), will return a text referring to the output of the bit (either 0 or 1)
DELIMITER //
DROP TRIGGER IF EXISTS entry_trigger//
CREATE TRIGGER entry_trigger BEFORE INSERT ON entry_log
FOR EACH ROW
BEGIN
DECLARE #xentry VARCHAR(45)
DECLARE #inta bit
SET #inta = SELECT allowed
FROM delivery
WHERE delivery.delivery_id = entry_log.delivery_id;
CASE
when #inta = 0 then #xentry = 'Acces Denied'
when #inta = 1 then #xentry = 'Acces Allowed'
END CASE
INSERT INTO entry_log(entry_time,access_allowed) VALUES(now(),#xentry);
END
//
This is assuming that you use MySQL. In the body of the trigger you use
WHERE delivery.delivery_id = entry_log.delivery_id;
I think you want to compare to the entry_log entry that the trigger is running on, right? In that case you must use this syntax:
WHERE delivery.delivery_id = NEW.delivery_id;
see here for more examples.
UPDATE
I see that also you try to do an INSERT INTO entry_log within the TRIGGER. This will of course not work, because you would create an infinite recursive loop. Within the
body of the trigger you can do unrelated table access, but not into the table you are inserting. You can change the values to be inserted by the trigger by setting NEW.xyz = whatever
UPDATE 2
I doubt, that your CASE statement is correct. At least it must end with END CASE. You can use IF here, since you don't have many cases to address. If you must use CASE this post might help you: MYSQL Trigger set datetime value using case statement
UPDATE 3
I am not sure, but I think you need brackets around the variable setting statement. try this trigger definition:
DELIMITER //
DROP TRIGGER IF EXISTS entry_trigger//
CREATE TRIGGER entry_trigger BEFORE INSERT ON entry_log
FOR EACH ROW
BEGIN
SET #inta = (SELECT allowed
FROM delivery
WHERE delivery.delivery_id = NEW.delivery_id);
SET NEW.access_allowed = #inta;
SET NEW.entry_time = NOW();
END
//
Note, that this is written out of my head, so beware of syntax errors in my script.
Hello, every one :)!
I'll try and keep this as simple as possible, basically, I have one table that references itself via a parent_id column. Each row in the table can have a parent and can keep count of how many children it has via the count column. So essentially what I'm trying to do is have the triggers update each parent row's count column when necessary
The problem is that the update trigger gets called when the update operation in the insert trigger gets called. Then I get:
"General error: 1442 Can't update table 'term_taxonomies' in stored function/trigger because it is already used by statement which invoked this stored function/trigger".
Any ideas?
Actual code:
TRIGGER `dbname`.`ai_term_taxonomies`
AFTER INSERT ON `dbname`.`term_taxonomies`
FOR EACH ROW
BEGIN
IF NEW.parent_id NOT 0 THEN
UPDATE term_taxonomies as termTax SET assocItemCount = (assocItemCount + 1)
WHERE termTax.term_taxonomy_id = NEW.parent_id;
END IF;
END$$
CREATE
TRIGGER `dbname`.`au_term_taxonomies`
AFTER UPDATE ON `dbname`.`term_taxonomies`
FOR EACH ROW
BEGIN
IF NEW.parent_id NOT OLD.parent_id THEN
IF NEW.parent_id NOT 0 THEN
UPDATE term_taxonomies as termTax SET assocItemCount = (assocItemCount + 1)
WHERE termTax.term_taxonomy_id = NEW.parent_id;
END IF;
IF OLD.parent_id NOT 0 THEN
UPDATE term_taxonomies as termTax SET assocItemCount = (assocItemCount - 1)
WHERE termTax.term_taxonomy_id = OLD.parent_id;
END IF;
END IF;
END$$
All mysql triggers execute in the same transaction as the triggering statement.
You want to update using the SET NEW.assocItemCount syntax as opposed to performing an UPDATE statement on the underlying table.
Edit: However, in your case this is not possible because you are updating a different row in the same table, the hardest thing to do in a mysql trigger. Sorry.
You will have to change your schema. Take assocItemCount out of your table, create a new table holding just term_taxonomy_id and assocItemCount, and update that using an UPDATE statement from your query. It is also possible to use a view joining these two tables to hide this detail if a query needs to use your original schema.
Alternatively, if you did not have assocItemCount in your database at all, you would still be able to compute it in any queries, and your database would be better normalized than it is now.
In case I ran a very long update (which has millions of records to update and is going to take several hours), I was wondering if there is anyway to kill the update without having InnoDB rollback the changes.
I would like the records that were already updated to stay as they are (and the table locks released ASAP), meaning to continue the update later when I have time for it.
This is similar to what MyISAM would do when killing an update.
If you mean a single UPDATE statement, I may be wrong but I doubt that's possible. However, you can always split your query into smaller sets. Rather than:
UPDATE foo SET bar=gee
... use:
UPDATE foo SET bar=gee WHERE id BETWEEN 1 AND 100;
UPDATE foo SET bar=gee WHERE id BETWEEN 101 AND 200;
UPDATE foo SET bar=gee WHERE id BETWEEN 201 AND 300;
...
This can be automated in a number of ways.
My suggestion would be to create a black_hole table, with fields to match your needs for the update statement.
CREATE TABLE bh_table1
..field defs
) ENGINE = BLACKHOLE;
Now create a trigger on the blackhole table.
DELIMITER $$
CREATE TRIGGER ai_bh_table1_each AFTER INSERT ON bh_table1 FOR EACH ROW
BEGIN
//implicit start transaction happens here.
UPDATE table1 t1 SET t1.field1 = NEW.field1 WHERE t1.id = NEW.id;
//implicit commit happens here.
END $$
DELIMITER ;
You can do the update statement as an insert into the blackhole.
INSERT INTO bh_table1 (id, field1)
SELECT id, field1
FROM same_table_with_lots_of_rows
WHERE filter_that_still_leaves_lots_of_rows;
This will still be a lot slower than your initial update.
Let me know how it turns out.