I have database partially created and edited by an external CRM where certain tables have multiple (at most 2) after triggers on them. This is due to 1 trigger being auto generated by the CRM (over which I have limited control) and the other containing my code.
The CRM trigger generates the primary key for the datarow inserted. My trigger needs to access that primary key in order to write it to another table as foreign key. I use
Select #id=max(id) from mytable
since Scope_Identity did not produce the desired result somehow.
This worked until I let the CRM recreate the table and its own trigger. The maximum id of that table selected by my trigger seemed to always be actual_id - 1.
When I altered my trigger using the same code it has always had the procedure worked again.
My question is:
Does SQL server (I am using SQL Server 2008) set its trigger order by creation time?
And:
Is
sp_settriggerorder #triggername='mycustomtrigger', #order='Last', #stmttype='INSERT'
going to change this permanently or do I have to call that procedure again, every time the CRM recreates its trigger? (using DROP and CREATE, not ALTER)
Hope the answers to that will help someone looking at the same issue.
Regards
It's not documented, but I believe that the LAST setting will stay with a trigger, provided it is not modified. (Contrariwise, it is documented that a trigger will lose this setting if it is modified). However, it seems to work:
create table T (ID int not null)
go
create trigger T_T1 on T
after insert
as
RAISERROR('T1',10,1) WITH NOWAIT
go
create trigger T_T2 on T
after insert
as
RAISERROR('T2',10,1) WITH NOWAIT
go
create trigger T_T3 on T
after insert
as
RAISERROR('T3',10,1) WITH NOWAIT
go
insert into T(ID) values (1)
go
sp_settriggerorder 'T_T2','Last','INSERT'
go
insert into T(ID) values (2)
go
drop trigger T_T1
go
create trigger T_T1 on T
after insert
as
RAISERROR('T1',10,1) WITH NOWAIT
go
insert into T(ID) values (3)
Results:
T1
T2
T3
(1 row(s) affected)
T1
T3
T2
(1 row(s) affected)
T3
T1
T2
(1 row(s) affected)
As to your first question, however:
Does SQL server (I am using SQL Server 2008) set its trigger order by creation time?
It also appears to, but I would not rely on that. sp_settriggerorder is the only place where any ordering is documented.
Finally, as mentioned in my comment, I wouldn't rely on your current Select #id=max(id) from mytable method - it could be broken for a number of reasons, but the most important is that a trigger is fired once per method, and may fire in response to multiple rows, so you ought to write triggers to use the inserted pseudo-table instead (and expect it to contain 0, 1 or multiple rows).
Related
I am trying to create a trigger to simultaneously update a different table than the one I have updated, with the same data.
I have two different database with the same tables and i'm trying to sync them, when i insert, update or delete data from one, i want to do automaticaly the same to the other table, with triggers.
This is the trigger code:
CREATE DEFINER=`Ivan_test`#`%` TRIGGER `Prueba_Ivan`.`mag_articulos_PI_AFTER_UPDATE` AFTER UPDATE ON `mag_articulos_PI` FOR EACH ROW
BEGIN
IF OLD.Prueba_Ivan.mag_articulos_PI NOT IN (SELECT * FROM ivan_test.mag_articulos_IT) THEN
INSERT INTO ivan_test.mag_articulos_IT
VALUES (new.xempresa_id, new.xarticulo_id, new.xcategoria_id, new.xvisible_web, new.xnovedad,new.xpromocion,new.ximagen_prelim,new.ximagen_amp,new.xtexto1,new.xtexto2,new.xtexto3,new.xtexto4,new.xtexto5);
ELSE
UPDATE ivan_test.mag_articulos_IT SET OLD.ivan_test.mag_articulos_IT = NEW.Prueba_Ivan.mag_articulos_PI;
END IF;
END
but I have this error:
Error Code: 1109. Unknown table 'OLD.Prueba_Ivan' in IN/ALL/ANY subquery
Can someone help me to find the mistake?
Thank you!!
OLD.Prueba_Ivan.mag_articulos_PI
OLD is an alias to the triggered row. Your trigger applies to Prueba_Ivan, which means that OLD and NEW are representing your Prueba_Ivan record before the change, and after it, respectively. This means that when you intend to reference mag_articulos_PI, you will need to do it via OLD.mag_articulos_PI, so remove the tablename from that expression.
OLD.ivan_test.mag_articulos_IT
As mentioned in the previous section, here OLD is an alter-ego of the updated Prueba_Ivan record, you do not need it in order to reference ivan_test.
Further explanation
An expression of the form of
a.b.c
reads as follows:
In database a, table b, column c. When you do something of the like of
OLD.t.c
it reads: In the OLD database, table t, column c.
Am populating a table using a trigger after an insert event occurs on another table and that worked fine. However i then noticed that the trigger would still insert a new row for existing records. To fix this, I want to create the trigger again but this time it would only fire if a condition is met...but not having previously used triggers in the past am getting a syntax error and not able to identify what am doing wrong. Kindly have a look and help me fix this
CREATE TRIGGER `students_gen_insert`
AFTER INSERT ON `students` FOR EACH ROW
BEGIN
INSERT INTO records (student_id, subject_id)
SELECT new.student_id, subjects.subject_id
FROM subjects
WHERE category = new.class;
END;
Am currently using MySql 5.6.17 version.
It is generally not a good idea to SELECT from the table the trigger is on, and forbidden to UPDATE or INSERT (not that you are doing those). Assuming you are trying to get the values for the row just inserted, the first SET ... SELECT you have is needless; just use NEW.fieldname to get the fields of the inserted row.
The second SET ... SELECT and following condition are a bit confusing. If referential integrity is being maintained, I would think it would be impossible for the records table to refer to that particular student_id of the students table at the point the trigger is executed. Perhaps this was to avoid the duplicate inserts from the trigger's previous code? If so, it might help for you to post that so we can pinpoint the actual source of redundant inserts.
I've created a trigger (never done it before).
My goal is:
WHEN one or more rows are INSERTED into the table 'userlite'
IF there are rows with 'IdLite' as in the new row inserted in the table 'litedetails'
THEN add a row to the table 'informations' for each row counted.
The new rows data fields will be:
IdUser -> from new row inserted into the table 'userlite'
IdLite -> it's the same on new row inserted into the table 'userlite' and into rows selected from the table 'litedetails'
IdEvent -> from rows selected
I used the code below to create the trigger
DELIMITER $$
CREATE TRIGGER after_newuserlite
AFTER INSERT ON userlite
FOR EACH ROW
BEGIN
IF (
(
SELECT COUNT(*)
FROM litedetails
WHERE IdLite = NEW.IdLite
) > 0
) THEN
INSERT INTO informations (IdUser, IdLite, IdEvent)
SELECT NEW.IdUser AS IdUser, IdLite, IdEvent
FROM litedetails
WHERE IdLite = NEW.IdLite;
END IF;
END;
$$
I've tested it and all seems to work but I'm worried for my inexperience, so my questions are:
1) Is there anything that can cause my trigger to fail?
2) what happens if the trigger fails?
3) If the trigger fails the query who started the trigger will mantain its effects?
As per comment: when using tables that support transactions, the triggers are then part of the statement. If a trigger fails, it causes the query that triggered it to fail as well, which causes a rollback. This applies to InnoDB and TokuDB storage engines.
For MyISAM, which isn't transactional engine, the trigger might error out but it won't cause a rollback (because it isn't supported by that storage engine).
Triggers can fail due to many reasons, just like regular queries can, but if they fail - you will receive an error message / notification that will let you act upon it (notify the user about failure, log the message, try again etc.).
I have the below trigger:
CREATE Trigger instructor_expertise on CourseSections
After Insert
As Begin
......
If (Not Exists(Select AreaName From AreasOfInstructor Where (InstructorNo = #InstructorNo AND AreaName = #AreaName)))
Begin
RAISERROR('Course not in instructors expertise', 16, 1)
rollback transaction
End
GO
My question is, does 'rollback transaction' remove the row?
What if it's 'For Insert' instead, does 'rollback transaction' remove the row in that case?
Thanks!!!
Your INSERT statement always runs in a transaction - either you've explicitly defined one, or if not, then SQL Server will use an implicit transaction.
You're inserting one (or multiple) row into your table. Then - still inside the transaction - the AFTER INSERT trigger runs and checks certain conditions - typically using the Inserted pseudo table available inside the trigger, which contains the rows that have been inserted.
If you call ROLLBACK TRANSACTION in your trigger, then yes - your transaction, with everything it's been doing, is rolled back and it's as if that INSERT never happened - nothing shows up in your database table.
Also: FOR INSERT is the same as AFTER INSERT in SQL Server - the trigger is executed after the INSERT statement has done its job.
One thing to keep in mind (which a lot of programmers get wrong): the trigger is fired once per statement - NOT once per row! So if you insert 20 rows at once, the trigger is fired once and the Inserted pseudo table inside the trigger contains 20 rows. You need to take that into account when writing the trigger - you're not always dealing with just a single row being inserted!
no it is not possible because when their is no row exist then it will go in begin block ...
I have an industrial system that logs alarms to a remotely hosted MySQL database. The industrial system inserts a new row whenever a property of the alarm changes (such as the time the alarm was activated, acknowledged or switched off) into a table named 'alarms'.
I don't want multiple records for each alarm, so I have set up two database triggers. The first trigger mirrors each new record to a second table, creating/updating rows as required. The second table ('alarm_display') has the 'Tag' column set as the primary key. The 'alarm' table has no primary key. The code for this trigger is:
CREATE TRIGGER `mirror_alarms` BEFORE INSERT ON `alarms`
FOR EACH ROW
INSERT INTO `alarm_display` (Tag,...,OffTime)
VALUES (new.Tag,...,new.OffTime)
ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE OnDate=new.OnDate,...,OffTime=new.OffTime
The second trigger should execute after the first and (ideally) delete all rows from the alarms table. (I used the Tag property of the alarm because the Tag property never changes, although I suspect I could just use a 'DELETE FROM alarms WHERE 1' statement to the same effect).
CREATE TRIGGER `remove_alarms` AFTER INSERT ON `alarms`
FOR EACH ROW DELETE FROM alarms WHERE Tag=new.Tag
My problem is that the second trigger doesn't appear to run, or if it does, the second trigger doesn't delete any rows from the database.
So here's the question: why does my second trigger not do what I expect it to do?
The explanation can be read here: http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.0/en/stored-program-restrictions.html
Within a stored function or trigger,
it is not permitted to modify a table
that is already being used (for
reading or writing) by the statement
that invoked the function or trigger.
This is your problem and your trigger ends with error #1442.
The table alarms is already being used by the statement that invoked your trigger (the insert). This essentially means you cannot modify alarms with a delete trigger.
Cheers!